Write g(y)=f−1(y).
Then g(f(x))=x, so differentiating both sides (using the chain rule), we see
g′(f(x))⋅f′(x)=1What we want is g′(π−1), so we need to figure out which value of x gives f(x)=π−1. A little trial and error leads us to x=2π.g′(π−1)⋅f′(2π)Since f′(x)=2−cos(x), f′(2π)=2−0=2:g′(π−1)⋅2g′(π−1)=21=1=1