미분법 전체 문제

a.

b. ${f}^{'}(x)=\frac{2ax{n}^{2}}{{({n}^{2}+{x}^{2})}^{2}}.$ When the amount of prey increases, the predator growth increases. c. ${f}^{''}(x)=\frac{2a{n}^{2}({n}^{2}-3{x}^{2})}{{({n}^{2}+{x}^{2})}^{3}}.$ When the amount of prey is extremely small, the rate at which predator growth is increasing is increasing, but when the amount of prey reaches above a certain threshold, the rate at which predator growth is increasing begins to decrease. d. At lower levels of prey, the prey is more easily able to avoid detection by the predator, so fewer prey individuals are consumed, resulting in less predator growth.

The angle is changing at a rate of $\frac{11}{25}\,\text{rad/sec}.$

We simplify the functions to get a better idea of what's going on.

($a$): $y=e^{3\log x}+1=\left(e^{\log x}\right)^3+1=x^3+1$. This is not a line.

($b$): $2y+5=e^{3+\log x}=e^3e^{\log x}=e^3x$. Since $e^3$ is a constant, $2y+5=e^3x$ is a line.

($c$): There isn't a fancy simplification here–this isn't a line. If that isn't a satisfactory answer, we can check: a line is a function with a constant slope. For our function, $y'=\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{e^{2x} +4\}=\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{e^{2x}\}=\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\left\{(e^x)^2\right\}=2e^xe^x=2e^{2x}$. Since the derivative isn't constant, the function isn't a line.

($d$): $y=e^{\log x}3^e+\log 2=3^e\,x+\log 2$. Since $3^e$ and $\log 2$ are constants, this is a line.

When we say a function is differentiable without specifying a range, we mean that it is differentiable over its domain. The function $f(x)$ is differentiable when $x \neq 1$ for any values of $a$ and $b$; it is up to us to figure out which constants make it differentiable when $x=1$.

In order to be differentiable, a function must be continuous. The definition of continuity tells us that, for $f$ to be continuous at $x=1$, we need $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 1}f(x)=f(1)$. From the definition of $f$, we see $f(1)=a+b=\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 1^-}f(x)$, so we need $\displaystyle \lim_{x\to 1^+}f(x)=a+b$. Since $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 1^+}f(x)=e^1=e$, we specifically need $$e=a+b.$$

Now, let's consider differentiability of $f$ at $x=1$. We need the following limit to exist:

$$\begin{aligned} \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(1+h)-f(1)}{h}& \\ \text{In particular, we need the one-sided limits to exist and be equal:} \\ \lim_{h \to 0^-}\frac{f(1+h)-f(1)}{h}&= \lim_{h \to 0^+}\frac{f(1+h)-f(1)}{h} \\ \text{If $h<0$, then $1+h<1$, so $f(1+h)=a(1+h)^2+b$. If $h>0$, then $1+h>1$, so $f(1+h)=e^{1+h}$. With this in mind, we begin to evaluate the one-sided limits:} \\ \lim_{h \to 0^-}\frac{f(1+h)-f(1)}{h}&= \lim_{h \to 0^-}\frac{[a(1+h)^2+b]-[a+b]}{h}\\ &=\lim_{h \to 0^-}\frac{ah^2+2ah}{h}=2a\\ \lim_{h \to 0^+}\frac{f(1+h)-f(1)}{h}&= \lim_{h \to 0^+}\frac{e^{1+h}-(a+b)}{h} \\ \text{Since we take $a+b$ to be equal to $e$ (to ensure continuity):} \\ &= \lim_{h \to 0^+}\frac{e^{1+h}-e^1}{h}\\ &=\left.\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{e^x\}\right|_{x=1}=e^1=e \end{aligned}$$

So, we also need $$2a= e$$

Therefore, the values of $a$ and $b$ that make $f$ differentiable are $a=b=\dfrac{e}{2}$.

This limit represents the derivative computed at $x=2015$ of the function $f(x)=\cos(x)$. To see this, simply use the definition of the derivative at $a=2015$ with $f(x)=\cos x$:

$$\begin{aligned} \left.\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{f(x)\}\right|_{a} &= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\\ \left.\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{\cos x\}\right|_{2015} &= \lim_{x\to2015}\frac{\cos(x)-\cos(2015)}{x-2015} \end{aligned}$$

Since the derivative of $f(x)$ is $-\sin(x)$, its value at $x=2015$ is exactly $-\sin(2015)$.

This limit represents the derivative computed at $x=\pi/3$ of the function $f(x)=\cos x$. To see this, simply use the definition of the derivative at $a=\pi/3$ with $f(x)=\cos x$:

$$\begin{aligned} \left.\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{f(x)\}\right|_{a} &= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\\ \left.\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{\cos x\}\right|_{\pi/3} &= \lim_{x\to\pi/3}\frac{\cos(x)-\cos(\pi/3)}{x-\pi/3}\\ &=\lim_{x\to\pi/3} \frac{\cos(x)-1/2}{x-\pi/3} \end{aligned}$$

Since the derivative of $f(x)$ is $-\sin x$, then its value at $x=\pi/3$ is exactly $-\sin(\pi/3)=-\sqrt{3}/2$.

This limit represents the derivative computed at $x=\pi$ of the function $f(x)=\sin(x)$. To see this, simply use the definition of the derivative at $a=\pi$ with $f(x)=\sin x$:

$$\begin{aligned} \left.\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{f(x)\}\right|_{a} &= \lim_{x \to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}\\ \left.\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\{\sin x\}\right|_{\pi} &=\lim_{x\to\pi} \frac{\sin(x)-\sin(\pi)}{x-\pi}\\ &=\lim_{x\to\pi} \frac{\sin(x)}{x-\pi} \end{aligned}$$

Since the derivative of $f(x)$ is $\cos(x)$, then its value at $x=\pi$ is exactly

$\cos(\pi)=-1$.

$$\begin{aligned} \tan \theta &= \dfrac{\sin \theta}{\cos \theta} \\ \text{So, using the quotient rule,} \\ \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}\theta}\{\tan \theta\}&=\frac{\cos\theta\cos\theta-\sin\theta(-\sin\theta)}{\cos^2\theta} =\frac{\cos^2\theta+\sin^2\theta}{\cos^2\theta}\\ &=\left(\frac{1}{\cos \theta}\right)^2=\sec^2\theta \end{aligned}$$

In order for the function $f(x)$ to be continuous at $x=0$, the left half formula $ax+b$ and the right half formula $\dfrac{6\cos x}{2+\sin x+\cos x}$ must match up at $x=0$. This forces $$a\times 0+b=\frac{6\cos 0}{2+\sin 0+\cos 0}=\frac{6}{3} \implies \boxed{b=2}$$

In order for the derivative $f'(x)$ to exist at $x=0$, the limit $\displaystyle \lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{f(h)-f(0)}{h}$ must exist. In particular, the limits $\displaystyle \lim_{h \rightarrow 0^-} \dfrac{f(h)-f(0)}{h}$ and $\displaystyle \lim_{h \rightarrow 0^+} \dfrac{f(h)-f(0)}{h}$ must exist and be equal to each other.

When $h \to 0^-$, this means $h<0$, so $f(h)=ah+b=ah+2$. So: $$\displaystyle \lim_{h\to 0^-}\dfrac{f(h)-f(0)}{h}=\displaystyle \lim_{h\to 0^-}\dfrac{(ah+2)-2}{h}=\left.\displaystyle \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\left\{ax+2\right\}\right|_{x=0}=a.$$

Similarly, when $h \to 0^+$, then $h>0$, so $f(h)=\dfrac{6\cos h}{1+\sin h + \cos h}$ and $$\begin{aligned} \displaystyle \lim_{h \rightarrow 0^+} \dfrac{f(h)-f(0)}{h} &= \left.\displaystyle \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x}\left\{\dfrac{6\cos x}{2+\sin x + \cos x}\right\}\right|_{x=0} \\&=\left.\frac{-6\sin x(2+\sin x+\cos x)-6\cos x(\cos x-\sin x)}{(2+\sin x+\cos x)^2}\right|_{x=0}.\end{aligned}$$

Since the limits from the left and right must be equal, this forces $$a=\frac{-6\sin 0(2+\sin 0+\cos 0)-6\cos 0(\cos 0-\sin 0)}{(2+\sin 0+\cos 0)^2} =\frac{-6}{(2+1)^2}\implies\boxed{a=-\frac{2}{3}}$$

In order for $f'(x)$ to exist, $f(x)$ has to exist. We already know that $\tan x$ does not exist whenever $x=\frac{\pi}{2}+n\pi$ for any integer $n$. If we look a little deeper, since $\tan x = \frac{\sin x}{\cos x}$, the points where tangent does not exist correspond exactly to the points where cosine is zero.